Will it make any difference for you no matter what is said? How about if I answer just one so as not to waste too much time? Will you continue to be skeptical and rebellious no matter what? Then again you just said you are not doing this for the usual reasons. Are you open to the idea that there are answers for questions like these, even if we do not have the answers yet. Are you open to the idea that many many questions like this have been answered and more answers will be forthcoming?
Ok here goes:
First, Your dubiousness has no bearing on whether or not the events took place. We just need to ask if we know that they took place or if it is plausible that they took place as described.
Did it certainly take place? The answer is we have no record that this specific census did. The historian Josephus records a census about that time in that place but it was only for Roman citizens. Let's suppose that neither Joseph nor Mary were Roman citizens. Though there were jews that were roman citizens it was very expensive.
Could there have been a census?
Papyri collected in Egypt, have shown that the Romans undertook periodic censuses throughout their empire. In Roman Egypt, for example, from A.D. 33 until 257 A.D., 258 different censuses were taken at 14-year intervals. This evidence has been known for a number of years, and substantiates Luke’s reference to Augustus’ census. Evidence indicates that Egyptian censuses were taken at 7-year intervals during the reign of Augustus and can be established with indirect and direct evidence for the years of 11-10 B.C., 4-3 B.C., A.D. 4 and 5, and A.D. 11 and 12." The emperor Augustus concerned about the instability of Herod very well could have extended the Egyptian census to Palestine in preparation for Herod's death. As an abberation in the normal procedure or as an example of the first for the area (which is what Luke calls it - the first) it very well may not have records documenting it that exist to today.
In short if the Romans took 258 other censuses why is it not plausible that they took one or two in Palestine? By the way, the way the Romans took the census was not to count all the people on a particular day but to count some regions one year and another region another year on and on until the whole empire was counted. Which explains why they took so many censuses (each consisting of many parts) and why Luke refers to the census in the present tense as something that started way back when but continues to occur.
So why would Joseph and Mary have to go to Bethlehem?
A.D. 104, Vivius Maximus issued an edict that states, "It is essential for all people to return to their homes for the census." If the emperor in A.D. 104 would issue an edict that people would have to travel back to their home cities it seems pretty plausible that Augustis would have done the same thing. The problem is not that these emperors did things that were silly but that Ausinus is trying to apply his understanding of modern HR principles to what emperors did 2000 years ago.
Was Luke Wrong About the Census Under Quirinius?
If the question Ausinus asked had been asked prior to finding the papyri in
Egypt or prior to finding the edict by Vivius Maximus we would have had little reason outside of the bible to suppose that it happened. Little reason to doubt it either.
But now we do have these papyri and evidence that events like the one described in the book of Luke did happen.
The point is that so far in all questions about the historicity of the bible emerging evidence has always validated the bible rather than invalidating it.
Why pose an endless array of questions if the motive is not just to cast aspersions?
If the real motive is just to know the truth then why ask questions about insignificant details when there are real questions that beg to be asked?
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